Exercises 1

我发了一个“考英概的看过来——免费在线课程和练习 ”的帖子，很多考友反映开不开那个网址，现在我先把选择题部分整理出来，每个exercise 为一章.因为选择题占50分哦，也是比较容易复习的，我打算重点复习选择题，把50分全部拿下！

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1. The United Kingdom is located in ____.
　  A. northern Europe　　　　　　　　  B. western Europe
　  C. northwestern Europe　　　　　　  D. southeastern Europe

2. The two large islands that make up the British Isles are ____.
　  A. Scotland and Ireland
　  B. Britain and Scotland
　  C. Great Britain and Northern Ireland
　  D. Great Britain and Ireland

3. The British Empire was replaced by the British Commonwealth or the
　 Commonwealth of Nations in ____.
　  A. 1921　　　　　　　　　　　　 　  B. 1931
　  C. 1945　　　　　　　　　 　　　　  D. 1950

4. The Commonwealth of Nations is an association of independent countries
　 ____.
　  A. that were once colonies of Britain
　  B. that have a large number of British immigrants
　  C. that have close relations with Britain
　  D. that have fought on the side of Britain in the two world wars

5. The English Channel separates the island of Great Britain from ____.
　  A. Denmark　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. Belgium
　  C. France　　　　　　　　　　 　　  D. the Netherlands

6. England has three main land regions. They are the Southwestern Plateau,
　 the Pennines, and ___.
　  A. the Eastern Plain　　　　　　　  B. the Highland
　  C. the Central Lowlands 　　　　　  D. the Southern Uplands

7. Scotland occupies the ____ third of the island of Great Britain in the
　 British Isles.
　  A. southern　　　　　　　　 　　　  B. northern
　  C. eastern　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. western

8. Northern Ireland, which takes up the northern fifth of Ireland, is a
　 fourth political division of ____.
　  A. the United Kingdom　　　　 　　  B. Ireland
　  C. Scotland　　　　　　　　　　 　  D. Wales

9. Britain’s longest rivers are ____.
　  A. the Severn and the Clyde 　　　  B. the Thames and the Clyde
　  C. the Clyde and the Humber 　　　  D. the Severn and the Thames

10. The largest lake in the British Isles is ____.
　  A. Loch Lomond　 　　　　　 　　　  B. Loch Neagh
　  C. Windermere　　　　　　　　 　　  D. Ullswater

11. Britain’s climate is influenced by____, a warm ocean current that passes
　　the western coast of the British Isles and warms them.
　  A. the North Atlantic Drift 　　　  B. the Brazil Current
　  C. the Labrador Current 　　　　　  D. the Falkland Current

12. The English people and the English language were born from the union
　　of ____.
　  A. the Angles and the Saxons
　  B. Germanic conquerors and the Norman French
　  C. Danes or Vikings and the Norman French
　  D. Norman conquerors and the defeated Anglo-Saxons

13. Generally speaking the English southerners speak the type of English
　　closer to ____.
　  A. the Cockney 　　　　　　　 　　  B. the Queen’s English
　  C. the Gaelic 　　　　　　　　　　  D. the BBC English

14. Although Wales has been united with England for more than 400 years, the
　　Welsh has kept alive ____.
　  A. their own language 　　　　　　  B. their own literature
　  C. their own tradition　　　　　　  D. All of the above

15. The Eisteddfod is a(n) ____ festival of poetry, music and other arts.
　  A. English　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. Scottish
　  C. Welsh　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. Irish

16. Nowadays the Gaelic language, which is an ancient____, is still heard in
　　the Highlands and the Western Isles.
　  A. Scottish language　　　　　　　  B. English language
　  C. Irish language　　　　　　 　　  D. Celtic language

17. Many Scottish names begin with M’, Mc or Mac, which means__
　  A. father of　　　　　　　　　　　  B. sun of
　  C. son of 　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. some of

18. In Northern Ireland ____ make up the dominant group.
　  A. Roman Catholics　　　　　　　　  B. English Protestants
　  C. non-religious people　 　　　　  D. Jewish people

19. Northern Ireland is small, but it is significant because of the__
　  A. the economic problems　　　　　  B. the political troubles
　  C. the immigration issues　　　 　  D. the national identity

20. About three million people have migrated to Britain since World War ll.
　　They are mainly from the West Indies, India and____.
　  A. Indonesia　　　　　　　　　　　  B. Singapore　　　　
　  C. Hong Kong　　　　　　　　　　　  D. Pakistan　　　　　

key 1.C　　2.D　　3.B　　4.A　　5.C　　6.A　　7.B　　8.A　　9.D　 10.B　1l.A　12.D 　13.D 　l4.D 　15.C　 16.D 　17.C 　18.B 　19.B 　20.D

Exercises 2

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1. The first known settlers of Britain were the ____.
　  A. Celts 　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. Iberians
　  C. Beaker Folk 　　　　　　　　　　  D. Romans

2. The Celts' religion was ____.
　  A. Buddhism 　　　　　　　　　　 　  B. Islam
　  C. Druidism 　　　　　　　　 　　　  D. Christianity

3. Roman control was only effective in ____.
　  A. Scotland　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. Wales
　  C. London 　　　　　　　　　　　 　  D. The southeast of Britain

4. Christianity was first brought to England by the ____.
　  A. Romans 　 　　　　　　　　　　　  B. Celts
　  C. Anglo-Saxons 　　　　　　 　　　  D. Danes

5. The Romans remained in control of Britain for nearly 400 years and they
　 pulled out in ____.
　  A. 306 AD 　　　　　　　　 　　　　  B. 410 AD
　  C. 446 AD 　　　　　　　　　　 　　  D. 1066 AD

6. Which of the following tribes came to Britain first?
　  A. The Angles. 　　　　　　　　　　  B. The Saxons.
　  C. The Gaels. 　　　　　　　　 　　  D. The Jutes.

7. ____ became the first real king of England, though he did not assume that
　 style.
　  A. Offa 　　　　　　　　　　 　　　  B. Egbert
　  C. Vortigern 　　　　　　　　　　　  D. Hengist

8. ____ became the first Archbishop of Canterbury.
　  A. Columba 　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. Ethelbert
　  C. St. Augustine 　　　　　　　　　  D. Egbert

9. The Vikings began to attack various parts of England from the end of the
　 ____century.
　  A. 7th 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 8th
　  C. 9th 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D.10th

10. Who were the ancestors of the English and the founders of England?
　  A. The Anglo-Saxons. 　　　　　　　  B. The Normans.
　  C. The Vikings.　　　　　　　　　　  D. The Romans

11. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
　  A. Alfred the Great started the English navy.
　  B. Alfred the Great reorganized the Saxon any, making it more
　　　　 efficient.
　  C. Alfred the Great established schools and formulated a legal System.
　  D. Alfred the Great impose a tax, called the Danegeld, on the Saxons.

12. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
　  A. Canute was chosen by the Witan as king of England.
　  B. Canute was a warrior king and fought many battles against the
　　　　 Normans.
　  C. Canute divided power between Danes and Saxons.
　  D. Canute forced Malcolm II, king of the Scots, to recognize him as
　　　　 overlord.

13. Which of the following is NOT true?
　  A. Edward the Confessor was more French than English.
　  B. Edward the Confessor filled his court with 'foreign' favorites.
　  C. Edward the Confessor was on very good terms with his father-in-law,
　　　　 Earl Godwin.
　  D. Edward the Confessor appointed a Norman priest Archbishop of
　　　　 Canterbury.

14. When Edward the Confessor died, ____was chosen by the Witan as king Of
　　England.
　  A. the king of Norway
　  B. Harold Godwinson, Earl of Wessex
　  C. Edgar, Edward's nephew
　  D. Tostig, the deposed Earl of Northumbria

15. Tostig, Harold's brother, joined____, and made an attempt to recover his
　　lost earldom of Northumbria.
　  A. Harold Hardrada, King of Norway
　  B. Edgar, Edward's nephew
　  C. Malcolm II, King of the Scots
　  D. Hardicanute

16. William, Duke of Normandy, fought King Harold of England at the Battle of
　　Hastings in____.
　  A. 1086　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 1066
　  C. 1035　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 1381

17. William won the Battle of Hastings. Later, on____, he was crowned king of
　　England.
　  A. Easter Day　　　　　　　　　　　  B. St. Andrew's Day
　  C. Christmas Day 　　　　　　　　　  D. Boxing Day

18. William, Duke of Normandy, is now known as____.
　  A. William the Confessor　　　　 　  B. William Lion-Heart
　  C. the father of the British navy　  D. William the Conqueror

19. Most of the land belonging to the Saxons was confiscated by William and
　　given to____.
　  A. the Norman barons　　　　 　　　  B. the Danes
　  C. the Irish　　　　　　　　　 　　  D. the Scots

20. The Norman Conquest is perhaps ____event in English history.
　  A. a trifling　　　　　　　　　　　  B. the best-known
　  C. a horrifying　　　　　　　　　　  D. a sensational 　

1. B 　　2. C 　　3. D 　　4. A 　　5. B 　　6. C 　　7. B 　　8. C 　9. B l0. A　 11. D 　　12. B 　l3. C 　 l4. B 　 l5. A 　 16. B　 17. C 　l8. D 19. A 　20. B

Exercises 3

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1. In the reign of William I, the ____were at the bottom of the feudal scale.
　  A. knights 　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. villeins
　  C. lesser nobles 　　　　　　　　　  D. freemen

2. The Domesday Book was completed in____.
　  A. 1086 　　　　　　　　 　　　　　  B. 1085
　  C. 1087 　　　　　　　　　　 　　　  D. 1006

3. When William I died in Normandy in ____he left England to his second son
　 William.
　  A. 1100 　　　　　　　　　　 　　　  B. 1153
　  C. 1087 　　　　　　　　　 　　　　  D. 1135

4. William II was known as William Rufus because of his____
　  A. independence 　　　 　　　　　　  B. efficiency
　  C. filial piety 　　　 　　　　　　  D. red complexion

5. ____ was the founder of the Plantagenet dynasty and ruled England for 35
　 years.
　  A. Henry I　　　　　　　　　　　 　  B. King Stephen
　  C. Henry II 　　　　　　　　　　 　  D. Count of Anjou

6. William Rufus (William II) was killed by an arrow when he was hunting
　 in____ in August l100.
　  A. the New Forest 　　　　　　　 　  B. Pevensey
　  C. Winchester 　　　　　　　　　 　  D. Gloucester

7. Henry II took some measures to bring the disorders of ____reign to an end.
　  A. Henry I's　　　　　　　　　　 　  B. King Stephen's　　
　  C. William II's 　　 　　　　　　　  D. Edward the Confessor's

8. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
　  A. Henry II did some renovations of castles built in Stephen's time.
　  B. Henry II recalled grants of Royal lands made by Stephen.
　  C. Henry II strengthened the powers of his sheriffs.
　  D. Henry II relied for armed support upon a militia made up of English
　　　Freemen.

9. Henry II divided the country into ____circuits and appointed traveling
　 judges to each of them.
　  A. three 　　　 　　　　　　　 　　  B. four
　  C. five 　　　　　　　　　　 　　　  D. six

10. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
　  A. The Bishop's courts could punish by means of censure.
　  B. The Bishop's courts could inflict corporal punishment.
　  C. The Bishop's courts could punish by means of excommunication.
　  D. The Bishop's courts could punish by mean of penance.

11. After Thomas Becket rejected the Constitutions of Clarendon Henry II____.
　  A. appointed him Chancellor of England
　  B. made him Archbishop of Canterbury
　  C. drove him into exile
　  D. increased the Jurisdiction of the church courts

12. Thomas Becket spent ____years on the continent and returned to England in
　　1l70.
　  A. four 　　　　 　　　　　　　　　  B. five
　  C. six 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. seven

13. The Great Charter (or Magna Carta) was signed by King John at Runnymede
　　in____.
　  A. 1162 　　　　　　　　　　 　　　  B. 1164
　  C. 1210　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 1215

14. Simon de Montfort summoned in____ the Great Council to meet at
　　Westminster, together with two knights from each county and two citizens
　　from each town.
　  A. 1242 　　　　　　　　　　 　　　  B. 1258
　  C. 1265 　　　　　　　　　　 　　　  D. 1266

15. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
　  A. In the 13th century a Black Rod went between the two Houses of
　　　 　Parliament for liaison and to discipline the members.
　  B. In the 13th century Parliament only met by royal invitation.
　  C. In the 13th century Parliament's role was to offer advice, not to
　　　　 make decisions.
　  D. In the 13th century the most important part of Parliament was the
　　　　 House of Lords.

16. During the reign of ____, Wales was brought under English rule.
　  A. Henry III 　　　　　　　　　　　  B. Edward I
　  C. Edward II 　　　　　　　　　　　  D. Edward III

17. ____ became the first prince to hold the title of Prince of Wales, which
　　continues to be borne by the eldest son of the reigning monarch.
　  A. Richard I 　　　　　　　　　　　  B. Henry III
　  C. Edward II 　　　　　　　　　　　  D. Edward III

18. The chief demand of the peasants during the Peasant Uprising of 1381
　　 was____.
　  A. the abolition of villeinage
　  B. the punishment of the King's ministers
　  C. the increase of wages
　  D. the reform of the church

19. Wat Tyler was killed by William Walworth, ____.
　  A. Archbishop of York　　　　　　　  B. Mayor of London
　  C. Archbishop of Canterbury　　　　  D. the Treasurer

20. The Peasant Uprising of 1381 did not direct against____.
　  A. the rich clergy　　　　　 　　　  B. the lawyers
　  C. the landowners　　　　　　　　　  D. the town traders
　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　 　　　

1. B 　　2. A 　　3.C 　　4. D 　　5. C 　　6. A 　　7. B 　 8. A 　9. D l0. B　 11. C 　　l2. C 　13. D 　l4. C 　 15. A 　 16. B 　17. C 　18. A l9. B 　20. D


（未完待续）英语国家概况—选择题（齐全）英语国家概况—选择题（齐全）

[ 本帖最后由 pkypky_1999 于 2006-4-17 13:23 编辑 ]

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1.The name of Wars of the Roses was, in fact, coined by the great 19th
　century novelist ____.
　  A. Charles Dickens　　　　　  B. George Elliot
　  C. Sir Walter Scott　　　 　  D. Charlotte Bronte

2. Although the Wars of the Roses were fought intermittently for ____ years,
　 ordinary people were little affected and went about their business as
　 usual.
　  A. 20 　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 30
　  C. 40 　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 50

3. No less than____ nobles of royal blood were killed in the Wars of the
　 Roses.
　  A. 80 　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 90
　  C. 100 　　　　　　　 　　　  D. 110

4. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
　  A. Henry VII refilled the royal treasury through loans, subsidies,
　　　　 property levies and fines.
　  B. Henry VII forbade the nobles to keep excessive power.
　  C. Henry VII built up England's navy and foreign trade.
　  D. Henry VII completely neglected parliament as though it never
　　　　 existed.

5. Henry VIII declared himself Supreme Head of the Church of England in ____.
　  A. 1529 　　　　　　　　　　  B. 1534
　  C. 1535 　　　　　　　　　　  D. 1547

6. Queen Mary burnt at stake some ____men and women who refused to change
　 back to the Catholic faith.
　  A. 300 　　　　　　　　　 　  B. 350
　  C. 400 　　　　　　　　 　　  D. 450

7. Mary died childless and her half-sister Elizabeth came to the throne as
　 Elizabeth I in ____.
　  A. 1547 　　　　　　　　　　  B. 1558
　  C. 1588 　　　　　　　　　　  D. 1603

8. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
　  A. Elizabeth I broke Mary's ties with Rome.
　  B. Elizabeth I restored her father's independent Church of England.
　  C. Elizabeth I's religious reform was a compromise of views.
　  D. Elizabeth I's religious settlement was acceptable to both extreme
　　　 　Protestants and ardent Catholics.

9. The Renaissance began in northern Italy in the early ____century, and was
　 typified by the universal genius of Leonardo Da Vinci.
　  A. 11th 　　　　　　　　　　  B. 12th
　  C. 13th 　　　　　　　　　　  D. 14th

10. The English Renaissance is said to have begun in ____.
　  A. 1422 　　　　　　　　　　  B. 1478
　  C. 1485 　　　　　　　　　　  D. 1495

11. James VI of Scotland succeeded Elizabeth I and became James I of England
　　in ____.
　  A. 1601 　　　　　　　　　　  B. 1603
　  C. 1615 　　　　　　　　　　  D. 1625

12. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
　  A. The Puritans believed that the Reformation had gone too far.
　  B. The Puritans became very powerful in Parliament.
　  C. The Puritans were very happy when they heard that James had become
　　　　 king of England.
　  D. The Puritans called for a purer form of worship.

13. The Puritans suspected James I of England being a secret ____because of
　　his pro-Spanish foreign policy and his son's Spanish marriage alliance.
　  A. Buddhist 　　　　　　　　  B. Catholic
　  C. Protestant 　　　　　　　  D. Muslim

14. In ____ a small group of Puritans sailed from Plymouth in the Mayflower,
　　and found New Plymouth in America, Britain's first settlement in the New
　　World.
　  A. 1614　　　　　　　 　　　  B. 1615
　  C. 1620　　　　　　　　 　　  D. 1621

15. The Great Civil War, as it became known, lasted from ____ until 1646.
　  A. 1639　　　　　　　　 　　  B. 1640
　  C. 1641　　　　　　　 　　　  D. 1642

16. When the First Civil War broke out ____men were at Charles I's command.
　  A. 1,000　　 　　　　　 　　  B. 2,000
　  C. 3,000　　　　　　　 　 　  D. 4,000

17. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
　  A. Oliver Cromwell became Lord Protector of the Commonwealth of England
　　　　 in 1653 by the Petition of Right.
　  B. Oliver Cromwell crushed without mercy a rebellion in Ireland.
　  C. Oliver Cromwell suppressed the Levellers, a group within his own
　　　　 army who advocated total religious and social equality.
　  D. Oliver Cromwell replaced the Rump with an assembly largely chosen by
　　　　 himself.

18. In 1660 the monarchy was restored and Charles I's son was brought back
　　from ____, where he had fled for safety.
　  A. Flanders　　　　　　　 　  B. France
　  C. Holland　　　　　　　　　  D. Germany

19. After the Restoration, Parliament passed a series of severe laws called
　　____against the Puritans, now known as Conformists.
　  A. Agreement of People　　　  B. The Petition of Right
　  C. The Clarendon Code　　 　  D. The Act of Supremacy

20. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
　  A. The Bill of Rights excluded any Roman Catholics from the succession.
　  B. The Bill of Rights confirmed the principle of parliamentary
　　　　 supremacy.
　  C. The Bill of Rights guaranteed free speech within both the House of
　　　　 Lords and the House of Commons.
　  D. The Bill of Rights requested that no taxes should be raised without
　　　　 consent of Parliament.　　　　　　 　　　　　　　 　　　

1.C 　　 2. B 　　3.A 　　　4.D 　　5.C 　　6.A 　　7.B 　　8.D 　　9.D 　10.C　 　11.B 　　12.A 　　13. B 　14. C 　15.D 　16.A 　　17.A 　　18.B 19.C　　 20.D

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1. Traditional farming involved the open field village, a system that dated
　 back to the ____century.
　  A. 4th 　　　　　　　　　　　 　　  B. 5th
　  C. 6th 　　　　　　　　　 　　　　  D. 7th

2. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
　  A. The open field system provided a good opportunity to experiment.
　  B. The open field system wasted land.
　  C. The open field system was wasteful of labor and time.
　  D. The open field system made livestock farming difficult.

3. Which of the following statements is NOT considered a characteristic of
　 farming in the late 18th and early 19th centuries?
　  A. Use of artificial fertilizer.
　  B. Introduction of new agricultural machinery.
　  C. The 'Open-field' system.
　  D. A system of crop rotation.

4. Land enclosure was a disaster for the ____evicted from their land by the
　 enclosures.
　  A. landlords 　　　　　　　　 　　  B. tenants
　  C. farmers 　　　　　　　　 　　　  D. wage laborers

5. In Ireland and Scottish Highlands land enclosure led to mass emigration,
　 particularly to ____.
　  A. Africa 　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. Eastern Europe
　  C. Asia 　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. The New World

6. By the early 19th century, Britain had a road network of some ____miles.
　  A. 115,000 　　　　　　　　　 　　  B. 120,000
　  C. 125,000 　　　　　　　 　　　　  D. 130,000

7. In England no females were allowed to vote in national elections before
　 ____.
　  A. 1918 　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 1920
　  C. 1928 　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 1945

8. In 1836 a group of ____and small shopkeepers formed the London Working
　 Men's Association.
　  A. householders 　　　　　　　　　  B. tenants
　  C. skilled workers 　　　　　　 　  D. office workers

9. The six points of the People's Charter were achieved gradually over the
　 period of ____, although the sixth has never been practical.
　  A. 1836-1848 　　　　　 　　　　　  B. 1842-1848
　  C. 1848-1908 　　　　　　 　　　　  D. 1858-1918

10. Parliament passed the Combination Acts of 1799-1800 to forbid the
　 formation of ____.
　  A. a new government 　　　　　　　  B. societies
　  C. communes 　　　　　　　　　　　  D. unions

11. The Labor Party had its origins in the ____, which was formed in
　　January,1893.
　  A. Independent Labor Party
　  B. Grand National Consolidated Trade Union
　  C. Amalgamated Society of Engineers
　  D. Trade Union Congress

12. Thanks to the militant feminist movement of the ____led by Mrs. Pankhurst
　　before the First World War, votes were granted to women over 30 in 1918.
　  A. Luddites　　　　　　　　　　 　  B. Suffragettes
　  C. Chartists　　　　　　　　　　　  D. Levellers

13. The spark of the First World War was struck at Sarajevo on June 28, ____,
　　when the Austrian Crown Prince Franz Ferdinand was assassinated by a
　　Serbian nationalist.
　  A. 1913　　　　　　　　　　 　　　  B. 1914
　  C. 1915　　　 　　　　　　　　　　  D. 1916

14. As a result of the First World War settlement the ____was established in
　　1920.
　  A. League of Nations　　　　　　　  B. British Commonwealth
　  C. British East India Company 　　  D. United Nations

15. After World War I political unrest in Britain led to ____general
　　elections in just over 5 years.
　  A. 2　　　　　　　　　　　　 　 　  B. 3
　  C. 4　　 　　　　　　　　　　　 　  D. 5

16. The Blitz radically changed the face of London for the first time since
　　____nearly 3 centuries earlier.
　  A. the Black Death 　　　　　　 　  B. the Great Fire
　  C. the Civil War 　　　　　　　 　  D. the Great Plague

17. The foundations of ____was laid in the late 1940s, providing free medical
　　care for everyone and financial help for the old, the sick and the
　　unemployed.
　  A. the welfare state
　  B. the National Health Service
　  C. the compulsory education
　  D. the Women's Liberation Movement

18. In the 1960s Pop music underwent a revolution when the Beatles became
　　world famous and turned their hometown of ____into a place of pilgrimage.
　  A. Manchester　　　　　　　　　 　  B. Blackpool
　  C. Liverpool 　　　　　　　　 　　  D. Sheffield

19. The 1970s saw the growth of ___in Wales and Scotland.
　  A. liberalism　 　　　　　　　　　  B. Marxism
　  C. chauvinism　　　　　　　　　 　  D. nationalism

20. Margaret Thatcher believed in the following except____.
　  A. self-reliance
　  B. the strengthening of trade unions
　  C. privatization
　  D. the use of monetary policies to control inflation
　　　 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　

1.B 　 2.A 　 3.C 　 4.B 　 5.D 　 6.C 　 7. A 　 8.C 　 9. D 　 10.D　 11.A 　12.B 　13.B 　14.A 　15.C 　16.B 　17.A 　 18.C 　19.D 　 20.B

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1. The economic policy Britain pursued in the 1950s and 1960s was based on
　 the theory of ____.
　  A. Adam Smith 　　　　　　　　　　  B. John Maynard Keynes
　  C. Margaret Thatcher　　　　　　　  D. Karl Marx

2. In the 1970s Britain maintained the _____ growth rate and the _____
　 inflation rate among the developed countries.
　  A. lowest/lowest 　　　　　　 　　  B. highest/highest
　  C. lowest/highest　　　　　　　 　  D. highest/lowest

3. Under Margaret Thatcher Britain experienced _______.
　  A. economic recession 　　　　　　  B. economic expansion
　  C. economic decline 　　　　　　　  D. economic depression

4. In Britain service industries account for about ____ of its gross domestic
　 product (GDP).
　  A. one-third 　　　　　　　　　 　  B. two-thirds
　  C. three-fifths 　　　　　　　　　  D. four-fifths

5. The following are the reasons why British coal mining is today called a
　 "sick" industry except _____.
　  A. Britain has used up almost all coal deposits
　  B. the demand for British coal has declined
　  C. petroleum, water power, and electric power are replacing coal for
　　　　 many purposes
　  D. the old British mines are narrow and deep, making it difficult to
　　　　 sue machines fro mining.

6. Which of the following is not true of British iron and steel industry?
　  A. Britain's steel industry is declining.
　  B. No more new discoveries of iron ore have been found in Britain.
　  C. Supplies of iron ore are now mostly foreign.
　  D. Compared with newer plants in the world, Britain's steelworks are
　　　　 not efficient.

7. Rolls-Royce is world famous for _____.
　  A. machine tools
　  B. household appliances
　  C. luxury automobiles
　  D. high-quality knives and hand tools

8. Why is it that Britain today imports more clothing than it exports?
　  A. British clothing is of poor quality.
　  B. Britain does not grow cotton.
　  C. Many countries with lower costs can produce clothing more cheaply
　　　　 than the British can.
　  D. Britain has a highly developed transportation system.

9. The area between _____ and ______ is now often referred to as the
　 "Silicon Glen".
　  A. London/South Wales 　　　　　　  B. the Oxford/the Cambridge
　  C. London/the Cambridge 　　　　　  D. Glasgow/Edinburgh

10. Which of the following is not true of Britain's agriculture?
　  A. British farming is highly mechanized.
　  B. Agriculture in Britain is intensive.
　  C. British farming is very efficient.
　  D. Britain's agriculture can produce enough food for its people.

11. Which area is called the Garden of England and is famous for beautiful
　　blossoms in spring?
　  A. The county of Kent in southeastern England.
　  B. The county of East Sussex in southern England.
　  C. The county of West Sussex in southern England.
　  D. The county of Essex in eastern England.

12. Britain once imported chiefly _____ and exported mostly ______.
　  A. manufactured products/raw materials
　  B. raw materials/manufactured products
　  C. foods/minerals
　  D. minerals/foods

13. Britain's leading customers and suppliers are France, Germany and _____.
　  A. Japan 　　　　　　　　　 　　　  B. Belgium
　  C. the Netherlands 　　　　　　 　  D. the United States

14. Which of the following is not true of Britain's foreign trade?
　  A. The value of Britain's exports of goods usually exceeds the value of
　　　　 its imports.
　  B. The value of Britain's imports of goods usually exceeds the value of
　　　　 its exports.
　  C. Manufactured goods now account for about 85% of British imports and
　　　　 about 80% of its exports.
　  D. Most of the United Kingdom's trade is with other developed
　　　　 countries,especially other members of the European Union.

15. The European Union (EU) is an organization of 15 _____ that promotes
　　cooperation among its members.
　  A. European countries 　　　　　　  B. developed countries
　  C. Western European countries 　　  D. Southern European countries

16. Which of the following is not true of the European Union?
　  A. The United States is also a member of the EU.
　  B. The members of the EU cooperate in many areas, including politics
　　　　 and economics.
　  C. The EU is a major economic unit.
　  D. The combined value of the union's imports and exports is greater
　　　　 than that of any single country in the world.

17. Headquarters of the European Union are in ______.
　  A. Paris, France 　　　　　　　 　  B. London, Britain
　  C. Berlin, Germany 　　　　　 　　  D. Brussels, Belgium

18. _____ started as a trading post of the Roman Empire about AD 43.
　  A. The City of Westminster 　　 　  B. The City of London
　  C. West End of London　　　　　 　  D. East End of London

19. Today, the City of London is the business center of London where _____
　　are located.
　  A. big supermarkets 　　　　　　　  B. theatres and cinemas
　  C. large financial organizations　  D. restaurants and cafes

20. What is Lloyd's?
　  A. It is a famous bank.
　  B. It is a big department store.
　  C. It is a famous insurance company.
　  D. It is a large hotel.　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　

1.B 　2.C 　3.B 　4.B 　5.A　 6.B 　7.C 　8.C 　9.D 　10.D　 11.A 　12.B 13.D 　14.A 　15.C　 16.A 　17.D 　18.B 　19.C 　20.C

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1. All criminal trials are held in open court because the criminal law
　 presumes the _____ of the accused until he has been proved guilty beyond
　 reasonable doubt.
　  A. guilt 　　　　　　　　 　　　　  B. impartiality
　  C. innocence 　　　　　　　 　　　  D. honesty

2. The jury consists of ordinary, independent citizens summoned by the
　 court: 12 in England, Wales and Northern Ireland, and ____ in Scotland.
　  A. 12 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 13
　  C. 14 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 15

3. People between the ages of _____ and 70 (65 in Scotland) whose names
　 appear on the electoral register, with certain exceptions, are liable for
　 jury service and their names are chosen at random.
　  A. 18 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 19
　  C. 20 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 21

4. Youth Courts try most cases involving people under _____.
　  A. 17 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 18
　  C. 19 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 20

5. The Crown Court sits at _____ centers and is presided over by High Court
　 Judges, full-time Circuit Judges and part-time Recorders.
　  A. 91 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 92
　  C. 93 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 94

6. The main courts of civil jurisdiction in England and Wales are the County
　 Courts of which there are _____.
　  A. 270 　　　　　　　　　 　　　　  B. 271
　  C. 272 　　　　　　　　 　　　　　  D. 273

7. In Northern Ireland civil cases up to the value of ￡_____ are dealt with
　 in county courts.
　  A. 14,000 　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 15,000
　  C. 16,000 　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 17,000

8. There are _____ police forces in England and Wales, 8 in Scotland and one
　 (the Royal Ulster Constabulary) 9n Northern Ireland.
　  A. 40 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 41
　  C. 42 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 43

9. Police officers are not allowed to join ____ or to go on strike.
　  A. a club 　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. a trade union
　  C. a political party 　 　　　　　  D. the army

10. There are about 130 prison establishments in England and Wales and some
　 20 in Scotland, many of which were built in the ____ century.
　  A. 16th 　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 17th
　  C. 18th 　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 19th
　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　 　　　

1. C 　2. D 　3. A 　4. B 　5. C　 6. A 　7. B 　8. D 　9. B 　10. D

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1. The National Health Service was established in the United Kingdom in
　 _____.
　  A. 1946 　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 1947
　  C. 1948 　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 1949

2. Prescription charges do not apply to the following people except ____.
　  A. self-employed people
　  B. child under 16
　  C. war and armed forces disablement pensioners
　  D. women aged 60 and over and men aged 65 and over

3. NHS has suffered from under-funding in recent decades, as a result of
　 which many ______ people have been turning to private medical health care.
　  A. working class 　　　　　　 　　  B. elderly
　  C. educated 　　　　　　　　　　　  D. better-off

4. Britain ahs about ______ million adults with one or more disabilities, of
　 whom around 7 percent live in communal establishments.
　  A. 4 　　　　　　　　　　 　　　　  B. 5
　  C. 6 　　　　　 　　　　　　　　　  D. 7　　

5. Most pregnant working women receive their statutory maternity pay directly
　 from their employer for a maximum of _____ weeks.
　  A. 17 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 18
　  C. 19 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 20

6. The Church of England is not free to change its form of worship, as laid
　 down in _____ without the consent of Parliament.
　  A. the Bill of Rights
　  B. the Provisions of Oxford
　  C. the Constitutions of Clarendon
　  D. the Book of Common Prayer

7. The position of the Church of Scotland was defined in the Treaty of Union,
　 1707, and further safeguarded by the Church of Scotland Act, ______.
　  A. 1921 　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 1922
　  C. 1923　　　　　　　　 　　　　　  D. 1924

8. The Salvation Army is served by 1,800 officers (ordained ministers) and
　 runs more than _____ worship centers.
　  A. 500 　　　　　　　 　　　　　　  B. 1,000
　  C. 1,500　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 2,000

9. At Christmas, the home is decorated with the following except _____.
　  A. colorful paper chains 　　 　　  B. leaves of holly and mistletoe
　  C. a young fir-tree 　　　　　　　  D. firecrackers

10. Easter is traditionally associated with the following except ____.
　  A. the resurrection of Christ
　  B. the eating of Easter eggs
　  C. the custom of giving presents
　  D. the coming of spring 　　　　　　　　　　　　　　 　　　

1. C 　2. A 　3. D 　4. C 　5. B　 6. D 　7. A 　8. B 　9. D 　10. C

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1. There are some ____ universities, including the Open University in
　 Britain.
　  A. 70 　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 80
　  C. 90 　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 100

2. Some _____ per cent of secondary schools in England are grant-maintained
　 (GM) self-governing schools.
　  A. 10 　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 15
　  C. 20 　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 25

3. The universities of Oxford and Cambridge date from the ____ centuries.
　  A. 12th and 13th 　　　　 　  B. 13th and 14th
　  C. 14th and 15th 　　　　 　  D. 15th and 16th

4. Over ____ science parks have been set up by higher education institutions
　 in conjunction with industrial scientists and technologists.
　  A. 10 　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 20
　  C. 30 　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 40

5. With about _____ daily and Sunday newspapers published nationwide, the
　 British public reads more newspapers than virtually any other country in
　 the world.
　  A. 110 　　　　　　　　　 　  B. 120
　  C. 130 　　　　　　 　　　　  D. 140

6. The BBC World Service broadcasts international news worldwide, using
　 English and ____ other languages.
　  A. 37 　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 38
　  C. 39 　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 40

7. In summer there are open-air theatres, including one in London's Regent's
　 Park, where ____ are performed, and the Minack Theatre, which is an open
　 cliffside near Land's End in Cornwall.
　  A. William Shakespeare's plays
　  B. Christopher Marlowe's plays
　  C. Ben Johnson's plays
　  D. George Bernard Shaw's plays

8. Pantomime is a kind of play based on a traditional fairy tale and per-
　 formed ____.
　  A. at Easter 　　　　 　　　  B. on New Year's Day
　  C. on St. Patrick's Day 　　  D. at Christmas time

9. Edinburgh International Festival of Music and Drama takes place for a
　 period of 3 to 4 weeks between ____ when Edinburgh becomes a center of
　 cultural activity.
　  A. July and August 　 　　　  B. August and September
　  C. September and October　　  D. October and November

10. In ____ each year the National Film Theatre hosts the London Film Fes-
　　tival, at which some 250 new films from all over the world are screened.
　  A. September 　　　　　 　　  B. October
　  C. November 　　　　　　　　  D. December　　 　　　　　

1. C 　2. B 　3. A 　4. D 　5. C　 6.　 B　 7. A 　8. D 　9. B 　10. C

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1. The annual population growth rate of the 1990s was ______.
　  A. 1%　　　　　　　　　　　　　 　  B. 0.9%
　  C. over 1%　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. under 1%

2. A major source of population growth is ________.
　  A. immigration　　　　　　　　　　  B. baby boom
　  C. rising birth rate　　　　　　　  D. larger number of young people

3. The immigrants spread unevenly across the country, with ______having the
　 largest percentage of immigrants.
　  A. Northeast　　　　　　　　　　　  B. the West
　  C. Midwest　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. the South

4. ________was an important immigration spot in late 19th century and early
　 20th century.
　  A. Ellis Island　　　 　　　　　　  B. San Francisco
　  C. Hawaii　 　　　　　　　　　　　  D. Miami

5. The three states that have seen the fastest growth in population in the
　 past 20 years are ______.
　  A. California, Arizona and New Mexico
　  B. California, Florida and Nevada
　  C. New Mexico, Texas and Florida
　  D. Arizona, Nevada and Florida

6. One of the reasons for the growth of population in Florida is because of
　 its _________.
　  A. expanding economy
　  B. large number of Cuban-Americans
　  C. climate
　  D. exotic food

7. More than _____of the population in the United States lived in city areas
　 in 1988.
　  A. 60%　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  B. 75%
　  C. 90%　　　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. 50%

8. The population between the age of 25 and 44 increased by 28.1% from 1980
　 to 1989 because ___________.
　  A. this was the period of large inflow of young immigrants
　  B. this was the birth age of the baby boomers.
　  C. the large number born during WW II reached this age bracket
　  D. those who were born in the period of baby boom reached this age
　　　　 bracket

9. Up to the end of WW II, there were ______waves of large-scale emigration
　 to the United States.
　  A. four　　　　　　　　　　　 　　  B. two
　  C. three 　　　　　　　　　　 　　  D. None of the above

10. Between 1845 and 1854, about 1.5 million Irishmen emigrated to United
　　States because of __________.
　  A. famine　　　　　　 　　　　　　  B. English oppression
　  C. war　　 　　 　　　　　　　　　  D. Both A & B

11. During the third wave of immigration from 1890 to 1910, many came from
　　____.
　  A. Britain and the Netherlands　　  B. Austria-Hungary and Russia
　  C. Japan and China 　　　　　　 　  D. Mexico and Cuba

12. According to historians and specialists in demography, there are _____
　　great population movement(s) in the history of the United States.
　  A. four　　　　　　　　 　　　　　  B. three
　  C. five　　 　　　　　　　　　　　  D. None of the above

13. In the last great population movement, a large number of people moved to
　　______.
　  A. the Northwest　　　　 　　　　　  B. the sunbelt areas
　  C. the South　　　　　　 　　　　　  D. the Southwest

14. Between 1960 and 1990, a large number of people moved from_____.
　  A. core cities to the suburbs　　　  B. rural areas to cities
　  C. small cities to large cities　　  D. None of the above

15. The current situation of African-Americans presents ________.
　  A. a favorable picture　　 　　　　  B. a negative picture
　  C. a mixed picture　　　　　 　　　  D. an encouraging picture

16. Although legal, official discrimination has been abolished _______.
　  A. discrimination in employment still exists
　  B. discrimination in university admission still exists
　  C. poverty rate of the blacks is the highest among all racial and
　　　　 ethnic groups
　  D. inequality and subtle discrimination still exist

17. The Cuban-Americans have done very well_________.
　  A. in Florida　　　　　　 　　　　  B. in business with Cuba
　  C. politically7　　　　　 　　　　  D. economically

18. The most important obstacle to Hispanic success in the labor market is
　　______.
　  A. the language problem　　　 　　  B. their low education
　  C. their low education　　　　　　  D. discrimination

19. Some people Asian-Americans owe their success to the Asian tradition
　　of_______.
　  A. education　　　　　　　　　　　  B. family and hard work
　  C. education　　　　　　　　　　　  D. B and C

20. One of the signs of the awakening of the American Indians is ________.
　  A. the reappearance of the "powwow"
　  B. the legal steps they are taking to recover land and resources that
　 　 　 have been grabbed form them illegally
　  C. their refusal to live on reservations
　  D. None of the above　　　　　　　　　　　 　　　　　 　　

1.C 　2.A 　3.B 　4.A 　5.D　 6.C 　7.B 　8.D 　9.C 　10.D　 11.B 　12.A 13.B 　14.A 　15.C　 16.D 　17.D 　18.B 　19.D 　20.B

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1. The result of the War with Mexico in 1846 was _______.
　  A. American annexation of California and New Mexico
　  B. the independence of California and New Mexico
　  C. a payment of 15 million U.S. dollars to Mexico for the annexation of
　　　　　California and New Mexico
　  D. a payment of 15 million U.S. dollars to Mexico

2. During the drafting of the Declaration of Independence and the drafting
　 of the Constitution, the issue of Negro slavery was _____.
　  A. not raised
　  B. raised but voted down
　  C. bitterly debated
　  D. raised but because of strong southern opposition it was put aside
　　　　 for greater objective

3. Slave labor was widespread in the south because______.
　  A. the cold weather in the north was not suitable for Negro slaves
　  B. Negro slaves could not cope with machines in factories in the north
　  C. Negro Slaves were best suited for the kind of plantation economy in
　　　　 the south
　  D. the north world not allow slavery to spread into their states

4. In the early 1850s, with the westward movement, the slavery issue became
　 a serious political issue endangering the unity of the country because
　 _____.
　  A. whether the future states formed as a result of the westward
　　　　 movement should be free or slave world affect the balance of power
　　　　 in the Senate
　  B. the south insisted that slavery should be allowed to spread into all
　　　　　new territories.
　  C. the north refused to let slavery spread into new territories.
　  D. the north wanted to put and end to slavery

5. Why did President Lincoln issue the Emancipation Proclamation?
　  A. Because President Lincoln himself was an abolitionist.
　  B. Because he wanted to punish the slave-owners in those states which
　　　　　broke away form the union.
　  C. Because he had no other alternative.
　  D. Because he realized that in order to win the war, he should make it
　　　　 a just war against slavery so as to rally as many people as
　　　　 possible under the banner of the Federal government.

6. President Lincoln was shot dead five days after________.
　  A. he made a speech at Gettysburg.
　  B. general Lee, commanding general of the Confederate army surrendered
　　　　 his troops .
　  C. the adoption of the thirteenth Amendment.
　  D. a military victory of the Union force at Gettysburg.

7. The rapid development of American economy after the Civil War was due to
　 ______.
　  A. the stable political environment and availability of capital
　  B. large pool or labor force because of free slaves, immigrants
　  C. scientific invention and government policy
　  D. All of the above

8. At the end of the 19th century. One of the strong trends in American
　 economy was ______.
　  A. the emergence of big trusts
　  B. the predominance of small factories
　  C. the frequent intervention in business by the government
　  D. the influence of foreign corporations

9. The place that Christopher Columbus landed was _______.
　  A. India
　  B. island in Asia
　  C. the current territory of the United States of America
　  D. islands in the now West Indies

10. The chief reason for early settlers to come to the New Continent was___.
　  A. to seek better opportunity
　  B. to escape religious persecution
　  C. to satisfy the urge for adventure
　  D. A and B

11. In American history, the Pilgrim fathers to those who came to Plymouth
　　on board of __________.
　  A. a French ship　　　　　　　　　  B. a British ship
　  C. Mayflower　　　　　　　　　　　  D. an Italian ship

12. One of the features of the early colonists which has strong influence on
　　the formation of American character is ___________.
　  A. religious intolerance　　　　　  B. respect for personal success
　  C. stress on community harmony　　  D. None of the above

13. What were the causes of War of Independence?
　  A. The development of colonial economy led to demand for more power to
　　　　 determine their own business.
　  B. the cruel exploitation of the colonies by the British government.
　  C. The sale of in the colonies.
　  D. A and B.

14. The clash at Concord and Lexington was ________.
　  A. the beginning of the War or independence?
　  B. the beginning of the second Continental Conference
　  C. a minor clash between the British and the colonists with no
　　　　 significance
　  D. None of the above

15. The significance of the War of Independence is that _________.
　  A. it paved the way for the development of capitalism in North America
　  B. it initiated a period of bourgeois revolution against feudal rule or
　　　　 colonial rule
　  C. Both A and B
　  D. None of the above

16. The unusual feature of the Articles of Confederation was that______.
　  A. it provided for no king but a republic and was a written
　　　　 constitution.
　  B. it decided that the United States of America was a republic with
　　　　 central power in Congress, that most powers laid in hands of the
　　　　 states and it was a written document
　  C. it was the first written constitution in the world and the emphasis
　　　　 was on a strong central government
　  D. the written constitution did not provide for an executive branch
　　　　 which could function as a government

17. The contradiction that arose at the Constitutional Conference of 1787
　　was contradiction between________.
　  A. big states and small states.
　  B. industrial-commercial interests and landed interests.
　  C. one house or two houses for Congress.
　  D. A and B

18. The Bill of Rights Amendments________.
　  A. dealt with procedural matters
　  B. included not only procedural guarantees but also guarantees of basic
　　　 rights for the individual
　  C. were adopted merely to satisfy those who opposed the Constitution
　  D. were reluctantly accepted by the Federalists

19. The impact of the War of 1812 on the development of the United States
　　was_______.
　  A. the realization of the importance of a strong national government
　  B. the reinvigoration of a sense of national unity
　  C. removal of obstacle to the westward movement
　  D. All of the above

20. The implications of the "Manifest Destiny" are______.
　  A. the legitimacy of American territorial expansion and American
　　　　 obligation of the Spread of American value and institution.
　  B. the legitimacy of the westward movement
　  C. the Americans were doing the Lord's work in spreading American
　　　　 democracy to other places
　  D. None of the above　　 　　　　　　　　　　 　　　　　　

1.C 　2.D 　3.C 　4.A 　5.D 　6.B 　7.D 　8.A 　9.D 　10.D　 11.C 　12.B 13.D 　14.A 　15.C 　16.B 　17.D 　18.B 　19.D 　20.A

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1. What was the main cause of the Second World War?
　  A. The main cause was big power struggle for control of the world.
　  B. It was the worldwide economic crisis.
　  C. It was the military expansion of Japan, and Germany.
　  D. Both B and C.

2. The consequence of the three neutrality acts of the United States was____.
　  A. to make the United States gain time to arm itself
　  B. to actually help the aggressors by making clear that the United
　　　　 States would not intervene
　  C. to get the United States involved in the war
　  D. to prevent the United States form being dragged into the war

3. American war time objectives were ______.
　  A. the total defeat of Axis powers
　  B. the establishment of a postwar world order under American leadership
　  C. coordination of war efforts of the Soviet Union, Britain and the
　　 　　United States
　  D. Both A and B

4. Overlord is a code name for ______.
　  A. American lend-lease assistance to the Soviet Union
　  B. the summit conference at Teheran
　  C. the allied landing at Normandy, France in 1944
　  D. the North African campaign

5. One of the important decisions at the Yalta Conference was ______.
　  A. the allied landing at Normandy
　  B. the setting-up of a world organization, the United Nations, to
　　　　 manage peace and security after the war
　  C. coordinated efforts in war against Japan
　  D. None of the above

6. The most important features in the growth of American economy in the
　 early 20th cenruty were ______.
　  A. the use of steam and electricity as chief energy, the development of
　　　 　lare corporation and the development of railway
　  B. the development of large corporation, urbanization and the
　　　　 employment in production of new technology
　  C. the appearance of airplane, the use of electricity on a large scale
　　　　 and urbanization
　  D. the rapid development of industry, railway and large cities

7. The Progressive Movement was ______.
　  A. an organized campaign with definite goals
　  B. a movement aiming at exposing the dark sides of society
　  C. not an organized campaign with efforts to improve people's living
　　　 　standard
　  D. a number of diverse efforts aiming at achieving political, social
　　　　 and economic reforms

8. In the political area, the Progressive Movement wanted to ______.
　  A. improve the living conditions of urban poor
　  B. reform the national government
　  C. change election systems in city and state governments and check
　 　　　corruption
　  D. check corruption in city and state governments

9. The Progressive Movement wanted to ______ in order to stop big business
　 control.
　  A. initiate strict government regulation
　  B. have the government to fix prices
　  C. break up all the big businesses
　  D. do away with rebates

10. One of the contribution of Theodore Roosevelt as President was ______.
　  A. the banning of child labor
　  B. the giving of voting right to women
　  C. in the field of natural conservation
　  D. in urban renovation

11. One of the contributions of Woodrow Wilson was ______.
　  A. natural conservation
　  B. the construction of irrigation projects
　  C. the setting-up of the Federal Reserve Board and twelve Federal
　　　　 Reserve Banks
　  D. the introduction of tariff increase and a low income tax

12. The policy the United States actually pursued in the first two years of
　　WWI was ______.
　  A. impartial neutrality　　　　 　  B. partial neutrality
　  C. firm support of the Allies　 　  D. Pro-Ally partial neutrality

13. The essence of the Paris Peace Conference was .
　  A. to bring peace to Europe
　  B. to carve up the colonies of the defeated countries and to get war
　　　　 compensation for the victors
　  C. to settle the colonial problem of the Ottoman Empire
　  D. to put the Fourteen Points into Practice

14. typically represented the world pattern between the two world wars _____.
　  A. The Versailles Treaty System
　  B. The Versailles Treaty System and the Washington Treaty System
　  C. The collapse of the German, Austro-Hungary and the Ottoman colonial
　　　　 systems
　  D. Both B and C

15. Sacco and Vanzetti were sentenced to death and executed because ______.
　  A. of their radical political views
　  B. they were guilty of killing two people
　  C. they were members of KKK
　  D. they stole $ 16,000

16. One of the serious weaknesses in American economy in the 1920s was _____.
　  A. uncontrolled speculation in the stock market
　  B. tariff protection
　  C. huge profits of big businesses
　  D. too much control over the banking system

17. The serious economic crisis in the late 1920s and 1930s first brought
　　about by ______.
　  A. bank failures　　　　　　　　　  B. serious unemployment
　  C. farm foreclosures　　　　　　　  D. the stock market crash

18. The Hoover Administration ______ to deal with the economic crisis.
　  A. took effective measures
　  B. did not take any measure
　  C. asked the private sector
　  D. refused to take strong government action

19. Most of the measures F.D. Roosevelt took in the first hundred days he
　　was in the White House were to ______.
　  A. stop bank failures
　  B. prevent radical actions in the United States
　  C. prevent the further worsening of the economic situation and lessen
　　　　 the personal sufferings of the people
　  D. prevent further worsening of the unstable political situation

20. The purpose of the New Deal measures was to ______.
　  A. save American democracy and the capitalist system
　  B. check the worsening of the economic situation
　  C. help people tie over the difficulty
　  D. increase American export　　　　　　　　　 　　　　　　

1.A 　2.B 　3.D 　4.C 　5.B 　6.B 　7.D 　8.C 　9.A 　10.C　 11.C 　12.D 13.B 　14.B 　15.A 　16.A 　17.D 　18.D 　19.C 　20.A

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1. Conflicts arose between the United States and the Soviet Union because___.
　  A. their common enemies Nazi Germany and Japan were defeated
　  B. They had very different concepts of postwar world order
　  C. the United States wanted cooperation with the Soviet Union but the
　　　　　Soviet Union refused.
　  D. the soviet Union wanted cooperation with the United States but the
　　　　　Untied States refused

2. The idea of containment was first brought up by ______.
　  A. Harry Truman 　　　　　　　　　  B. Franklin D. Roosevelt
　  C. Marshall 　　　　　　　　　　　  D. George Kennan

3. The essence of the Truman Doctrine was ______.
　  A. to provide economic and military support for any country which was
　　　 　fighting internal Communist rebels or external Communist pressure
　  B. to provide aid for Greece and Turkey which were fighting against
　　　 　Communism
　  C. to provide economic aid to needy countries
　  D. to give moral support to the struggle of free people

4. As a result of American economic aid under the Marshall Plan, Western
　 Europe _____.
　  A. managed to tie over the difficult years in the late 1940s
　  B. succeeded in solving the food problem
　  C. recovered from war destruction and its economy began to develop
　  D. became prosperous

5. It was _____ which started the Berlin blockade.
　  A. the Soviet Union　　　　　 　　  B. the United States
　  C. Britain　　　　　　　　　　　　  D. France

6. Why did the United States decide to go ahead and set up a separate German
　 state?
　  A. Because the United States wanted to rearm the Germans.
　  B. Because only in this way could German economy be reinvigorated.
　  C. Because the United States realized it was impossible to have a
　　　　 unified Germany under American influence.
　  D. Because the Soviet Union first set up a separate German state in its
　　　　 occupied zone.

7. The purpose of Marshall's mediation in China in 1945 and 1946 was ______.
　  A. to support the Kuomintang in starting a civil war
　  B. to pressure the Kuomintang into forming a coalition government with
　　　　 the Communist Party as an equal partner.
　  C. to bring the two sides together for negotiations
　  D. to bring the Communist Party into a coalition government dominated
　　　　 by Kuomintang and put Communist led troops under the command of the
　　　 　coalition government

8. The Chinese government changed its timetable of liberation of Taiwan in
　 1950 because ______.
　  A. the Korean War broke out
　  B. the United States sent the 7th Fleet into the Taiwan Straits.
　  C. the Soviet Union did not support China's liberation of Taiwan then
　  D. the United States army was approaching the Yalu River

9. The Chinese Volunteers crossed the Yalu River and fought side by side
　 with the North Koreans until an armistice was signed in ______.
　  A. July 1952.　　　　　　 　  B. July 1953.
　  C. July 1954.　　 　　　　　  D. June 1953.

10. President Truman on March 21, 1947 issued an executive order, initiating
　　a comprehensive investigation of the loyalty of all federal employees.
　　This was the beginning of ______.
　  A. McCarthyism
　  B. Clearing out Soviet spies
　  C. widespread persecution of Communists and progressive people
　  D. persecution of federal employees

11. The trial of Alger Hiss proved ______.
　  A. that he was a Soviet spy
　  B. that he did not tell the truth in court
　  C. that he provided Soviet agent with secret information on atomic
　 　 　 weapon
　  D. None of the above

12. The Supreme Court played a role in whipping up the anticommunist hysteria
　　by ______.
　  A. upholding the constitutionality of the Smith Act
　  B. convicting 11 high-ranking Communist leaders
　  C. supporting the trial of Alger Hiss
　  D. supporting President Truman's executive order

13. What did the Little Rock Incident refer to?
　  A. It referred to a violent outburst of a thousand white in Clinton,
　　　　 Tennessee against school desegregation.
　  B. It referred to an incident in Alabama in opposition to Supreme Court
　　　　 decision on school desegregation.
　  C. It referred to Arkansas governor's use of state National Guard to
　　　　 prevent African-American students from going to an all white school
　　　　 in Little Rock and Federal government intervention to carry out
　　　　 court decision.
　  D. It referred to Arkansas governor's use of state National Guard to
　　　　 prevent African-American students from going to an all white school
　　　　 in Little Rock.

14. The pillar industries for the postwar economic boom were ______.
　  A. information, space and biotechnology
　  B. textile, automobile and construction
　  C. defense, information and housing
　  D. automobile, housing and defense

15. During the Cuban Missile Crisis, there was ______ a nuclear war.
　  A. little danger of 　　　　　　　  B. grave danger of
　  C. real intention for　　　　　 　  D. earnest preparation for

16. When ______,this was the beginning of American involvement in Vietnam.
　  A. the United States decided to provide France with military aid in
　　　　 their fight in Vietnam
　  B. the United States started to provide aid for the South Vietnamese
　　　　 government after the Geneva Conference in 1854
　  C. the United States sent more and more military advisers to South
　　　　 Vietnam
　  D. the United States began to Americanize the war in Vietnam

17. The Paris Agreement was signed by the U.S. and North Vietnam in Jan. 1973
　　and the fall of Saigon was in ______.
　  A. April, 1973　　　　　　　　　　  B. April, 1975
　  C. Jan, 1975　　　　　　　　　　　  D. None of the above

18. The conditions the People's Republic of China set for the establishment
　　of diplomatic relations with the United States were ______.
　  A. the withdrawal of the 7th Fleet from the straits and the end of
　　　　 diplomatic relations with Taiwan
　  B. the cancellation of the mutual defense treaty and the end of
　　　　 diplomatic relations with Taiwan.
　  C. the stop of 7th Fleet patrol in Taiwan straits, the cancellation of
　　　　 the mutual defense treaty and the end of diplomatic relations with
　　　　 Taiwan
　  D. the withdrawal of all military forces from Taiwan, the cancellation
　　　　 of the mutual defense treaty and the end of diplomatic relations
　　　　 with Taiwan

19. New Frontier and War on Poverty were programs initiated by ______.
　  A. President Kennedy
　  B. President Johnson
　  C. Presidents Kennedy and Johnson respectively
　  D. Presidents Johnson and Kennedy respectively

20. The Watergate Scandal refers to ______.
　  A. the break-in at the Watergate apartment-office complex in
　　　　 Washington,D. C.
　  B. the break-in and Nixon's secret taping
　  C. the break-in, the cover up and Nixon's involvement in the cover up
　  D. Nixon's resignation　　　　　　 　　　　　 　　　　　　

I. B 　2.D 　3.A 　4.C 　5.A 　6.C 　7.D 　8.B 　9.B 　10.C　 11.D 　12.A 13.C 　14.D 　15.B 　16.A 　17.B 　18.D 　19.C 　20.C

I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
　unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
　D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or 　　
　answers the question.

1. The United States ranks ______ in the world in the total value of its
　 economic production.
　  A. first　　　　　　　　　　  B. second
　  C. third　　　　　　　　　　  D. fourth